Disadvantages include high consumption. About automation, industrial control systems, control systems and electrical engineering in Ukraine and the world

Topic 1: “Subject and method of economic theory”

1. Economy as a special sphere of human life is the object of:

a) systems of natural sciences;

b) systems of social sciences;

c) systems of economic sciences.

Correct answer: c. (P)

1. The system of economic sciences includes:

a) sociology;

b) concrete economic sciences;

c) functional economic sciences;

d) technology

Correct answer: b,c, (P)

3. The most complete and specific definition of the subject of economic theory is:

a) economic theory studies activities including the production and exchange of goods;

b) economic theory studies variables whose behavior affects the state of the national economy;

c) economic theory studies the relations of production, distribution, exchange and consumption in their interrelation and interdependence in conditions of limited resources;

d) economic theory radiates money, the banking system, capital.

Correct answer: c. (P)

4. Microeconomics as a branch of economic theory studies:

a) economic behavior of individual subjects in a market economy

b) relations between different owners

c) organization of work at the enterprise

Correct answer: a. (P)

5. Macroeconomics as a branch of economic theory studies:

a) the role of the state in the economy

b) global trends in the economic development of mankind

c) the national economy as a single whole

d) processes occurring in the household

Correct answer: c. (P)

6. The main significance of economic theory today is that it:

a) helps entrepreneurs avoid risk

b) gives scientists the opportunity to realize their abilities

c) shows the ways of the best organization of social economy to meet the needs of people

d) reveals to a person the true motives of his behavior

Correct answer: c.

7. Positive economic theory studies:

a) “what is what”?

b) “what should be”?

d) value judgments

Correct answer: a. (P)

1. Normative economic theory studies:

a) “what is”?

b) “what should be”?

c) positive trends in economic development;

d) value judgments.

Correct answer: b. (P)

1. The methodological function of economic theory is that:

a) it is one of the ideological disciplines;

b) it is an educational discipline;

c) it determines the essence of economic phenomena and possible tools for studying them

Correct answer: c. (P)

1. Economic theory:

a) deals exclusively with the predictive characteristics of the development of economic systems;

b) contains provisions that are always accepted by all economists;

c) is not science;

d) cannot predict the future, but can explain the relationships between certain phenomena in economic development.

Correct answer: g. (P)

11. Establish the sequence of emergence of the main economic schools:

a) Marxism

b) institutionalism

c) marginalism

d) physiocrats

e) mercantelists

e) classics

Correct answer: d, d, f, a, c, b.

12. The concept of scientific method includes:

a) ways to optimally use all cognitive tools

b) a set of actual data

c) the worldview of scientists

Correct answer: a)

13. The methodology of economic theory is the teaching:

a) about the dynamics of economic development;

b) about scientific methods and principles of knowledge of society;

c) about the principles and methods of economic knowledge.

Correct answer: c. (WITH)

14. What methods of studying economic processes emerged in the twentieth century:

a) synthesis

b) modeling;

c) economics and mathematics;

d) analysis;

e) ascent from the abstract to the concrete.

Correct answer: b, c. (P)

15. If the economy is studied as an integral system, then this analysis:

a) microeconomic;

b) macroeconomic;

c) positive;

d) normative.

Correct answer: b.(P)

16. Economic school that expressed the interests of the trading bourgeoisie of the era of primitive accumulation of capital:

a) mercantilism

b) fetishism

c) physiocrats

d) marginalism

Correct answer: a,.(C)

17. E. Gaidar’s shock therapy was based on the theory:

a) Keynesianism

b) public choice

d) rational expectations

e) monetarism

Correct answer: d.(C)

18. Economic benefits are characterized by:

a) unlimited quantity;

b) created in the process of labor;

c) rarity;

Correct answer: b, c (C)

19. Limited resources are:

a) lack of materials for the operation of the enterprise;

b) characteristics of only pre-industrial systems;

c) the impossibility of fully satisfying the growing needs of humanity;

Correct answer: c. (WITH)

20. A non-economic good is:

a) submarine;

b) leisure and entertainment;

c) wind energy;

c) knowledge.

Correct answer: c. (P)

21. The economic system determines:

a) what, where, for whom to produce;

b) what, where, how to produce;

c) when, why and who will produce;

Correct answer: b. (WITH)

22. Economic theory is the science of:

a) how to improve personal well-being;

b) on state regulation of supply and demand;

c) about the essence of ongoing economic processes and the laws of their development;

d) about the means of satisfying human needs;

Correct answer: c, (C)

23. Scientific foresight is related to:

a) with an assumption;

b) with forecasting

c) with justification of the hypotheses put forward;

d) with the transformation of put forward hypotheses into theory.

Correct answer: b. (WITH)

24. One of the main directions of development of modern economic theory is:

a) school of institutionalism;

c) Keynesian school;

d) school of mercantilism;

d) classical English school

Correct answer: a.(P)

25. The fundamental problem of modern economic theory is:

a) supply and demand;

b) efficiency and fairness;

c) entrepreneurship and profit;

d) limited resources and choice

e) production and consumption.

Correct answer: g.(P)

26. Limited resources are a problem that:

a) exists only in poor countries

b) associated with certain types of economic systems

c) depends on the political orientation in the country

c) never occurs in rich countries

d) exists in all countries.

Correct answer: g. (C)

27. The study of economics as an integral system is:

a) macroeconomic analysis;

b) hypothetical analysis;

c) descriptive analysis;

d) microeconomic analysis.

Correct answer: a. (C)

28. Microeconomics is a branch of economic theory that studies:

a) how society can achieve full employment;

b) how consumers, firms and resource owners behave in the market;

c) problems of accelerating economic growth;

d) issues of economic security.

Correct answer: b.

29. Macroeconomics determines:

a) distribution of limited resources between various areas of their use;

b) a set of factors, phenomena and processes operating at the interstate level;

c) a set of economic factors and processes operating within a single country;

d) mega-economy;

Correct answer: c. (WITH)

30. The economic system of Sweden is:

a) command economy

b) market economy

c) mixed economy

d) traditional economy

e) transition economy

Correct answer: c.

Topic 2. “General principles of economic development.”

1. The most accurate list of factors of production considered by economic theory:

1. land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship
2. land labor, means of production, entrepreneurial ability

3. resources, technology, entrepreneurship

Correct answer: 1. (P)

2. The choice of ways to use limited resources is rational if it:

1. ensures minimization of project execution time

2. leads to savings in all factors of production

3. minimizes costs and maximizes beneficial effects

4. creates opportunities to extract monopoly profits

Correct answer: 3. (P)

3. Solving the problem “What to produce?” reflects:

1. availability of opportunities to sell natural resources
2. a set of goods that satisfy the needs of the minimum subsistence level
3. implementation of decisions of local authorities
4. a set of goods that can satisfy current and future needs

Correct answer: 4. .(C)

4. Opportunity costs are called:

1. costs of implementing all possible projects in the short term
2. costs of implementing desired projects in the long term
3. costs of developing pilot projects in the medium term
4. the cost of realizing the best unrealized opportunity

Correct answer: 5. .(C)

1. The price scale is:

a) one of the functions of money

b) the ratio of prices of goods

c) the amount of gold taken as 1 monetary unit

d) purchasing power of money

Correct answer: c.

6. What resources involved in the production process become factors of production:

Correct answer: 1A, 2B, 3B, 4A, 5A, 6A. (WITH)

1. The opportunity cost of a new residential building is determined by:

a) the cost of building this house

b) the least expensive way to build this house

c) the number of other goods that had to be given up in order to build this house;

d) The amount of profit that the construction company will receive

e) Income received from the sale of apartments in this building.

Correct answer: c. (WITH)

8. The choice of production factors and their combinations in a market economy is carried out:

1. taking into account market prices for resources
2. in accordance with the economic doctrine of development
3. in accordance with their strategic purpose
4. depending on natural and climatic conditions
5. taking into account their wear and tear

Correct answer: 1. .(C)

9. Market economy is focused on:

1.satisfying social needs for a specific good

2.satisfying social needs

3.meeting the strategic political needs of the nation’s development

4.meeting effective demand

5.following instructions from authorities

Correct answer: 4. (P)

10. Commodity production is the organization of the national economy in which products are produced:

1. cooperative producers

2. associated manufacturers

3. manufacturers forced into the production of this product

4. separate manufacturers

Correct answer: 4. .(P)

11. Full use of all resources shows:

a) a shift of the production possibilities curve to the right

b) a point outside the production possibility line

c) a point inside the production possibilities frontier

d) a point on the production possibilities line

e) shift of the production possibilities curve to the left

Correct answer: c. (WITH)

12. The main goal of social production of goods and services:

a) increase in tax revenues

b) ensuring full employment of the population

c) use of minerals

d) meeting social needs

e) achieving social justice

Correct answer: g. (P)

a) the relationship of a person to a thing

b) existing property ties secured by law

c) relations between people regarding the appropriation and alienation of various goods d) the right to use a thing

Correct answer: c.

14. The initial criterion for distinguishing types of economic systems are:

a) stability of economic growth

b) the level of well-being of society members

c) a way of coordinating economic life

d) efficiency of use of natural resources

Correct answer: c)

15. The consumer properties of a product are not related to the level of development of a nation and can only satisfy personal needs. Is this statement true?

Correct answer: 2. .(P)

16. Within the framework of the theory of labor value, goods are commensurable if they:

1. identical properties

2. equal utility for different subjects

3. ability to satisfy the same need

4. the same amount of labor spent on their production

5. natural and climatic conditions in which they were produced.

Correct answer: 4. (P)

17. Proponents of the theory of labor value believed that value is:

1. the total utility that a product brings to society

2. the individual utility that a product brings to society

3. the amount of individual labor spent on the production of goods

4. the amount of socially necessary labor. spent on the production of goods

5. the amount of total labor. spent on the production of goods.

Correct answer: 4. .(C)

18. Specific labor creates:

1. price
2. use value
3. total cost
4. marginal utility
5. total utility

Correct answer: 2. .(P)

19. Specific types of labor are so different from each other that it is possible to reduce them to homogeneity only through measurement in time. Is this statement true?

Correct answer: 1. .(P)

20. Abstract work acts as:

1. individual labor costs

2. costs of the total labor of a hired worker

3. the cost of physical and mental energy of the employee

4. specific form of activity.

Correct answer: 3. .(C)

21. Individual time is the cost of working time:

a) a separate manufacturer

b) average in a given society

c) the maximum possible in a given society

Correct answer: a.(P)

22. Socially necessary time is time. which is required to create a specific product when:

1. the highest level of technology, technology and production organization

2. favorable natural resource conditions

3. maximum production intensity

4. average, normal production conditions for the modern period

5. minimum productivity and labor intensity

Correct answer: 4. .(P)

23. The value of a product is directly proportional to labor productivity. Is this statement true?

Correct answer: 2. .(P)

24. Indicate what characteristics of noble metals have singled them out for the role of universal equivalent:

a) qualitative homogeneity

b) high melting point

c) high cold resistance

d) easy divisibility

d) portability

e) corrosion resistance

g) long-term preservation

h) low specific gravity

Correct answer: a, d, e, f, g.

25. Proponents of the labor theory of value define price as:

1. monetary expression of use value
2. monetary expression of surplus value
3. monetary expression of the costs of specific labor
4. monetary expression of the cost of goods

Correct answer: 4.

26. Marginal utility is:

1. the utility of a good that is available in abundance

2. utility of a good that does not have a stock exchange valuation

3. the utility of the entire set of goods available to the subject

4. utility of an additional unit of consumed good

5. the utility of an available amount of a good that is not available in abundance.

Correct answer: 4.

27. The value of money in modern conditions is determined by:

a) the country's gold reserves

b) their absolute liquidity

c) average price level

d) the amount of money in circulation

e) gold content of the monetary unit

Correct answer: Mr.

28. Goods with absolute liquidity:

a) securities,

b) gold,

c) information,

d) money

e) resources

Correct answer: Mr.

29. The use value of a commodity, labor power, is:

1. the ability to create value greater than the cost of the product itself; labor

2. the ability to create value equal to the cost of the product labor

3. the ability to create value that is less than the cost of the product labor

4. the ability to create value that is qualitatively different from all others

Correct answer: 1. .(P)

30. Capital is:

a) any means of production

b) any money

c) money received as an inheritance

d) cash savings

e) money put into circulation for the purpose of generating income

Correct answer: d.

Topic 3. “Market as an economic system.”

1. Competition in a market economy:

a) exists only among producers;

b) exists only among buyers;

c) is associated with limited resources and the sovereign right of each of the subjects

market to realize its economic potential;

d) exists because it is beneficial to the state.

Correct answer: c). (P)

2. Despite the presence of many disadvantages, the market mechanism has an undeniable advantage. It is expressed:

a) in equal distribution of income;

b) in the stable development of the economy;

c) in the preservation of natural resources;

d) in the efficient allocation of resources.

Correct answer: d) (P)

3. Which of the following characteristics refers to a market economy:

a) competition;

b) state property;

c) centralized planning;

d) state quality control of each product

Correct answer: a). (P)

1. Price competition is:

a) price changes

d) cost reduction.

Correct answer: a), d). (P)

5. What problems in a market economy should the state deal with:

a) determine the range of goods and services that society needs, regardless of the tastes and preferences of any group of the population

b) do what the market cannot do

c) distribute cash income in society;

d) provide assistance to a manufacturer who finds himself in a difficult situation;

d) determine what to produce and how much.

Correct answer: b). (WITH)

6. Producers in a market economy produce exactly what people need because...

a) producers agreed and divided the markets for goods and services among themselves;

b) interaction between producers is coordinated by the government;

c) a competition mechanism operates;

D) these goods and services are traditionally produced.

Correct answer: c). (P)

7. The experience of post-war European countries has shown that a market economy, as a rule, is more effective than a command-administrative one. This…

• due to the fact that European countries with developed market economies have accumulated high scientific and technical potential and trained highly qualified personnel;

b) explained by the action of the competition mechanism;

c) the statement is incorrect;

d) due to the fact that government members in countries with market economies know economic theory better and pursue correct economic policies.

Correct answer: b). (P)

1. The market as an economic category is:

a) the place where the seller and buyer meet,

b) a set of connections and relationships between sellers and buyers,

c) subordination of the buyer to the seller

Correct answer: b).

9. In a market economy, the interests of society as a whole will be respected even if everyone strives to achieve their own goals. This is achieved as a result...

a) that the market economy is built on the principles of competition;

b) social responsibility of business leaders;

c) careful planning and coordination of market activities;

d) the market ensures rational distribution of resources and changes in production proportions depending on needs

e) understanding by each citizen of what the public interests are.

Correct answer: d). (WITH)

10. What markets exist in modern conditions:

a) free market,

b) regional market

c) national market

d) world market

Correct answer: a)

1. The main subjects of market relations are:

a) state

b) Gazprom

c) buyers

d) collective farm "Voskhod"

d) sellers

Correct answer: a) c) d)

1. A competitor in an industry market is a manufacturer that:

a) expands the amount of capital used through diversification

b) increases the volume of production

c) maneuvers prices

Correct answer: b), c).

1. Price in a market economy performs the following functions:

a) Stimulating

b) credit

c) accounting

d) fiscal

e) distribution

Correct answer: a)c)d)

1. Market infrastructure performs the following main function:

a) determines the volume of production

b) ensures the work of all market entities

c) makes payments to customers

Correct answer: b)

1. Objects of market relations can be:

a) economic benefits,

b) services,

c) social relations

d) political benefits

Correct answer: a) b).

16. The solution to the problem of “what to produce” in a market economy involves:

a) with determining the level of specialization of the economy

b) the choice between the production of means of production and the production of consumer goods

c) the formation of a state production system

d) development of competition

d) effective demand

Correct answer: d)

17. What characterizes perfect competition:

A) production volumes of an individual firm

b) the ability of the manufacturer to influence the market price

c) the inability of the manufacturer to influence the market price

d) product quality

e) product differentiation

Correct answer: c)

18. There is an element in the market mechanism in which government intervention can lead to the breakdown of the market mechanism. This:

a) changing demand

b) rate of profit

c) additional demand for capital

e) change in supply volume

Correct answer: d)

Topic 4. “Fundamentals of the theory of supply and demand”

1. A horizontal demand curve is completely inelastic.

b) Incorrect

Correct answer: b) P.

2. A simultaneous increase in supply by 12% and demand by 40% will lead to:

a) reducing the price and increasing the quantity of goods

b) establishing a stable price and increasing the quantity of goods

c) reducing prices and reducing the quantity of goods

d) an increase in prices and an increase in the quantity of goods

e) establishing a stable quantity and reducing the price.

Correct answer: d)

Movement along the demand curve will occur in the following cases:

a) Changes in consumer expectations

b) Reducing the price of an interchangeable product

c) Changes in the price of a given product

d) Changes in the supply of goods

Correct answer: c).

4.Which of the following factors can cause an increase in demand for a product?

a) increase in income;

c) decrease in income;

c) increase in the price of a substitute product;

e) an increase in the price of a complementary product;

f) the product has ceased to be fashionable;

Correct answer: a).

5. Item A is normal if

a) an increase in the price of complementary good B leads to a decrease in demand for good A;

b) an increase in consumer income causes an increase in demand for product A;

c) an increase in the price of a substitute product is the reason for an increase in demand for product A;

d) meets the requirements of the law of demand;

e) income and demand for good A are inversely related.

Correct answer: b).

6. The price of a product will fall if:

a) there is a surplus on the market;

b) the current market price is higher than the equilibrium price;

c) the quantity supplied of a product exceeds the quantity demanded for it at the current price;

d) all of the above factors are true;

e) all of the above factors are incorrect.

Correct answer: d).

7. The fact that a fall in the price of a product pushes the producer to reduce its supply is illustrated:

a) the law of supply;

b) the law of demand;

c) change in supply;

d) the very essence of low-quality goods;

d) technological progress.

Correct answer: a).

8. Which of the following factors will shift the supply curve for good “x” to the left?

a) reducing the wages of workers producing goods X;

b) an increase in the cost of equipment with which product x is manufactured;

c) technological improvements in the production of goods X;

d) a situation in which the volume of demand exceeds the volume of supply of product x;

Correct answer: b).

9. If available resources can be used to produce both goods “A” and goods “B”, then A and B are:

a) substitute goods in production;

b) complementary goods in production;

c) substitute goods in consumption;

d) complementary goods in consumption;

d) normal goods.

Correct answer: a).

10. If both demand and supply increase in the same proportion, then:

a) the price rises, sales volume increases;

b) the price falls and sales volume increases;

c) the price and sales volume will not change

d) the price will rise, and sales volume may either rise or fall;

e) the price will decrease and sales volume will either increase or decrease.

Correct answer: c).

11. The law of demand states that, other things being equal:

a) prices and incomes are directly proportional;

b) income and volumes of trade transactions are directly proportional;

c) prices and volumes of demand are directly proportional;

d) prices and volumes of demand are inversely proportional.

Correct answer: d).

12. If two goods are substitute goods and the price of one of them increases, then the demand for the other goods will be:

a) do not change;

c) fall.

Correct answer: b).

13. The law of supply states that, other things being equal:

a) price and volume of demand are inversely proportional;

b) price and supply volume are inversely proportional;

c) income and supply are not interrelated;

d) price and quantity supplied are directly proportional.

Correct answer: d).

14. Changes in the volume of supply may be due to changes in:

a) demand

b) income;

Correct answer: d).

15. A price above the equilibrium price can lead to the following consequences:

a) shortage;

b) inflation;

c) market equilibrium

d) excess supply;

Correct answer: d).

16. In markets, the equilibrium price is determined by:

a) the decision of buyers

b) government decision

c) decision of the manufacturers

d) supply and demand

Correct answer: d)

17. Excessive supply of goods on the market is a consequence of the fact that:

b) the price of a product is below the equilibrium

c) the price of a product is higher than the equilibrium price

d) the volume of production of this product has decreased

e) the volume of demand for this product has increased

Correct answer: c)

18. Excess demand for a product (shortage) is a consequence of the fact that:

a) the price of the product is equal to the equilibrium price

b) the price is below the equilibrium price

c) the price is higher than the equilibrium price

d) the quantity supplied has decreased

d) the quantity supplied has increased

Correct answer: b)

19. Other things being equal, an increase in demand will lead to:

a) to an increase in the equilibrium price and an increase in supply

b) to a decrease in equilibrium price and supply

c) to a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in supply

d) to an increase in the equilibrium price and a decrease in supply

Correct answer: a)

20. The elasticity of supply is influenced by:

a) availability of substitute goods on the market

b) time factor

c) the share of expenses in the consumer budget for this product

d) consumer income level

d) no factor influences

Correct answer: b).

21. Interchangeable goods:

a) are produced simultaneously

b) have the same price

c) complement each other when consumed

d) compete with each other in the market

e) stimulate each other's sales

Correct answer: d)

22. Complementary products:

a) are produced simultaneously

b) have the same price

c) complement each other in the process of consumption

d) compete with each other in the market

Correct answer: c).

23. The reason for the shift in the supply curve may be:

a) changing consumer tastes

b) increase in buyer income

c) reduction in the price of goods

d) introduction of new income taxes

Correct answer: d)

24. The reason for the shift in the demand curve can be everything except:

a) rush demand

b) increasing the income of buyers

c) reduction in the price of goods

d) change in fashion

Correct answer: c)

25. If an increase in the price of a product by 1% causes an increase in supply by 1.2%, then this supply:

a) elastic

b) inelastic

c) has unit elasticity

d) absolutely elastic

d) absolutely inelastic

Correct answer: a).

26. If the price elasticity of demand is 2.5, and demand increased by 10%. then the percentage increase in price will be:

Correct answer: c).

27. The elasticity of demand is influenced by:

a) consumer income level

b) consumer preferences

c) time factor

d) none of these factors influences.

Correct answer: a)

Topic 5: “Theory of consumer behavior.”

1. Indicate the main factors influencing consumer behavior:

c) need;

d) proposal.

Correct answers: a), c), d). (P)

1. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, the marginal utility of each additional unit of the same good as consumption increases is:

b) decreases;

c) remains unchanged.

Correct answer: b). (P)

1. Marginal utility is:

• a measure of the overall satisfaction obtained from the consumption of goods over a certain period of time;

b) additional utility from each subsequent unit of consumed product

c) a change in the total utility of a good caused by a change in consumer income.

Correct answer: b). (P)

1. The indifference curve shows:

• all combinations of goods for which the total amount of costs equals income;

b) different sets of goods and services.

c) the entire set of combinations of two goods that have the same utility for the consumer.

Correct answer: c). (P)

1. Under which of the following conditions is consumer equilibrium satisfied?

• when the indifference curve has two intersection points with the budget line;

b) when the indifference curve does not intersect the budget line;

c) when the indifference curve touches the budget line at one single point.

The correct answer is c). (WITH)

1. The ability of consumers to purchase more goods as a result of lower prices is explained by:

• law of diminishing marginal utility;

b) income effect;

c) the substitution effect.

Correct answer: b). (P)

1. The negative slope of the indifference curve reflects the fact that:

• the consumer has limited income;
• provided that the consumption of one of the goods increases, it is necessary to reduce the consumption of another good;
• consumer preferences are explained by the prices of the goods purchased.

Correct answer: (b). (P)

1. The budget constraint equation represents the equation of the straight line:I = …………………

Answer: I=P1X + P2Y (P)

1. The difference between marginal utility and total utility is………………..

Correct answer: that marginal utility characterizes the change in total utility. (P)

1. Fill in the blanks in this table:

Correct answers: (d) = 21; (d) = 19; b) = 7; d) = 3. (PS)

1. In this graph, the consumer's equilibrium is indicated by the point………………….

Correct answer: E

12. Find the correspondence between the definitions and their content:

b) need;

c) general utility;

d) marginal utility.

1) a change in total utility caused by a change in the consumption of a given good by one unit, provided that the consumption of other goods remains unchanged;

2) a measure of overall satisfaction received from the consumption of goods over a certain period of time;

1. the ability of an economic good to satisfy human needs.
2. a person's desire to consume various goods.

Correct answer: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1. (WITH)

1. The tenth candy does not give as much pleasure as the first.
   That's an example:

a) law of demand

b) dependencies between supply and demand

c) opportunity cost

d) decreasing marginal utility

Correct answer: d).

1. The consumer reaches optimal consumption when:

a) each good purchased brings the same marginal utility

b) achieves maximization of total utility under budget constraint

c) the same amount of money is spent on buying different goods

d) the maximum volume of consumed goods is achieved

Correct answer: b)

15. Check the correct statement:

a) the consumer always prefers more to less;

b) the consumer makes decisions under conditions of limited income;

c) the marginal utility of any good increases as the consumed quantity of a given type of good increases;

Correct answer: b)

a) indifference curve;

b) marginal rate of substitution;

c) budget constraint;

1). the maximum quantity of one good that a consumer is willing to give up in order to obtain an additional unit of another good.

2). the amount of money available that can be spent on purchasing goods;

3). various combinations of economic goods that have the same utility for the consumer.

Correct answer: a-3, b-1, c-2..(C)

17. As the total utility from consuming a good increases, marginal utility:

a) increases

b) decreases

c) reaches a maximum

d) negative

d) equal to zero

Correct answer: b) (P)

1. The rate of substitution of one product for another:

a) effective replacement of one good with another

b) expresses diminishing marginal utility

c) equal to the ratio of prices for goods

d) shows the amount of product X that the consumer agrees to give for an additional unit of product Y.

Correct answer: d).

19. The cardinalist theory of utility differs from the ordinalist theory in that:

a) does not consider subjective preferences

b) considers it possible to quantitatively measure utilities

c) does not use models

Correct answer: b).

20. Usefulness is:

a) the property of a product to bring any benefit during its use

b) cheapness of the goods

c) product availability

d) variety of goods

Correct answer: a).

21. Sets of goods that have the same utility lie on:

a) budget line

b) one indifference curve

c) one demand curve

Correct answer: b).

22. If the consumer’s income changes, then the budget line:

a) moves

b) does not change its position

c) nothing can be said specifically

Correct answer: a).

23. Consumer choice:

a) choice that maximizes consumption

b) choice that maximizes utility under a limited budget

c) choice that maximizes demand

Correct answer: b)

24. The substitution effect is:

a) a change in demand due to changes in fashion

b) an increase in demand under the influence of rising prices

c) a change in the consumption structure as a result of a decrease in price by one

d) product change in real income of the consumer

Correct answer: c)

25. The income effect is:

a) an increase in demand for expensive goods

b) a change in the consumption structure as a result of a decrease in the price of one product

c) a change in the consumer's real income as a result of price changes

d) changes in demand under the influence of fashion

Correct answer: c)

Topic 6. “The company, its costs and profits

1. Normal profit is:

a) state income;

b) an element of accounting costs;

c) an element of internal costs;

The correct answer is c).

1. Which of the following definitions most accurately matches the concept of “normal profit”:

a) profit obtained when marginal revenue and marginal costs are equal;

b) the profit received by a typical firm in the industry;

c) the profit that the company would receive in the normal course of business;

d) the minimum profit necessary for the company to remain within a given field of activity;

e) profit that provides the entrepreneur with a comfortable standard of living.

The correct answer is d).

1. Centralization of production is:

a) growth of the company using its own funds;

b) the company’s penetration into different industries and areas of activity;

c) growth of the company due to the addition of other industries to it through mergers and acquisitions;

The correct answer is c).

4. The relationship that exists between changes in the values ​​of average (AP) and marginal products (MP) indicates that in the point of intersection of the graphs of these quantities:

a) the average product reaches its maximum;

b) the average product reaches its minimum;

c) marginal product reaches its maximum;

d) marginal product reaches its minimum.

The correct answer is a).

1. The firm's fixed costs are:

a) workers' wages

b) office rental costs

c) costs of electricity consumed by the active part of fixed capital

d) costs of purchasing raw materials and materials

Correct answer: b)

1. The law of diminishing returns means that in the short run:

a) with an increase in the used factors of production, the effect of scale decreases;

b) the volume of output with certain technologies tends to decrease;

c) with an increase in the variable factor of production, with constant constants, the product of this factor increases, reaching its maximum, and then decreases;

d) with an increase in production volume, the value of the marginal product becomes negative.

The correct answer is c).

1. Economic costs of the company:

a) exceed internal and external costs by the amount of normal profit

b) do not include internal and external costs

c) determined by external costs

d) consist of internal costs

e) include internal and external costs.

Correct answer: d).

1. Internal costs are:

a) costs of equipment maintenance and servicing

b) costs that do not depend on the volume of output

c) the opportunity cost of the entrepreneur's resources

d) the costs of organizing a company

e) environmental protection costs

Correct answer: c)

9. Which of the following statements characterizing the relationship between total, average and marginal product is incorrect?

a) average product continues to increase as long as marginal product increases;

b) average product reaches its maximum level before total product reaches its maximum level;

c) total product reaches its maximum level when marginal product is zero;

d) the marginal product is equal to the average product at the maximum level of the average product;

e) total product decreases if marginal product is less than zero.

The correct answer is a).

1. Variable costs include:

a) property tax

b) interest on a bank loan

c) rent

d) wages

Correct answer: d)

1. In the long term:

a) all costs are variable;

b) all costs are constant;

c) variable costs are growing faster than fixed costs;

d) fixed costs grow faster than variable costs;

d) all costs are implicit

The correct answer is a)

13. In the short run, a firm produces 500 units of output. Average variable costs are $2, average fixed costs are $0.5. Total costs will be:

a) $0.25; b) $1250; c) $750; d) $1100; d) cannot be determined based on available data

The correct answer is b)

14. The opportunity costs of a new stadium are:

a) payment for his security;

b) the price of construction of the stadium next year;

c) changing the tax rate, which is paid from the stadium’s income;

d) the price of other goods and services, the production of which was sacrificed for the construction of this stadium.

The correct answer is d)

15.The firm’s gross costs can be defined as the sum:

a) average fixed and variable costs

b) average variable and average fixed costs

c) fixed and marginal costs

d) fixed and variable costs

e) constant and average variables.

Correct answer: d)

16. Positive economies of scale mean that:

a) better organization of work is achieved

b) there is a decrease in average costs

c) the marginal productivity of factors of production increases

d) production volume increases

Correct answer: b)

15. The marginal product of a factor of production is:

a) the maximum possible output using a given factor,

b) the volume of output using all factors of production

c) additional output when the factor increases by one

d) output per unit factor

Correct answer: c).

1. Maximizing the firm's profit is considered the main goal in:

a) classical theory;

b) management theory;

c) behavioral theory;

d) evolutionary theory;

The correct answer is a)

1. Transaction costs are:

a) costs of determining and protecting property rights;

b) costs of economic dishonesty;

c) costs associated with unexpected circumstances;

d) costs of searching for information;

e) negotiation costs;

e) all of the above are true.

The correct answer is e)

1. Long-run average cost curve:

a) is the envelope for the minima of short-term average cost curves

b) is not an envelope for short-term average cost curves

c) is a mirror image of the average product curves

d) characterizes changes in marginal costs

Correct answer: a).

1. Accounting profit is:

a) revenue from sales of products

b) the difference between the firm's revenue and opportunity costs

c) the difference between gross income and external costs

Correct answer: c)

1. Establish a correspondence between the economic indicators of costs and the formula determining their value:

IZ D E R J KI

average overall average averagemaximum

common constant variables

1. FC=TFC:Q
2. MC = D TC: D Q
3. TC = TFC + TVC
4. ATC=TC:Q
5. AVC=TVC:Q
6. ATC = AFC + AVC
7. = D TVC: D Q

Correct answer: 1C; 2E; 3B; 4A; 5D; 6 A; 7E.

21. The term "marginal cost" means:

a) the maximum that a producer can spend on the production of a given product

b) the amount of expenses in excess of average variable costs

c) the cost of producing an additional unit of output

d) additional costs associated with increased prices for resources

Correct answer: c)

1. Establish a correspondence between the economic indicator and its definition:

TRTS TR MRMSAS

additional unit of production;

1. revenue received from the sale of general

volume of products;

1. quantity of product obtained from

using the entire resource volume

1. production costs

units of production

1. product obtained from use

additional unit of resource

1. production costs for the entire volume

products

Correct answer: 1 E; 2 C; 3 A; 4 F; 5 D; 6E

1. If the only variable resource is labor and the remaining factors are fixed:

Number of workers (persons) 0 1 2 3 4 56

Product output (pieces)04090 126 150 165 180

The marginal product of the 6th worker will be...

The correct answer is 15 pieces

24. Marginal costs are the costs associated with the production of ... units of production (specify in one word)

Correct answer: additional.

26. Average costs are the costs associated with the production of ... products (specify in one word)

Correct answer: units

27. If long-term average costs decrease as production volume increases, then:

a) there are diseconomies of scale

b) there is a positive effect of scale

c) there are constant economies of scale

d) there is not enough data to answer

Correct answer: b)

28. If the following conditions are given:

production output 0 123 4

total costs 60 140 180 240 420

then the total fixed costs will be...

Correct answer 60

29. If, in producing 10 units of output, total fixed costs are $20 and total variable costs are $40, total average costs will be...

Correct answer: 6.

30. If the volume of a variable resource increases from 3 to 4 units, and the volume of output increases from 90 to 100 units, then the marginal product of the variable resource will be…..

The correct answer is 10 units.

31. If the average product of a variable resource is 15 units, and the value of a variable resource is 4 units, then the total output will be equal to…..

The correct answer is 60 units.

Topic 7: “Perfect competition”

1. A typical firm in a perfectly competitive industry:

a) considers the market price of the product as given;

b) can partially, but not completely, control the entry of new firms into the industry;

c) can sell more product only if it reduces the price;

D) sells a product that is unique compared to the products sold by other firms in the industry.

Correct answer: a).

1. The equilibrium level of output of a competitive firm is established at:

Correct answer: b).

1. Choose the correct statement:

b) in the short run, a competitive firm will not produce if price is greater than variable costs but less than total costs.

c) in the short run, a competitive firm will not produce if the price is below variable costs;

D) in the short run, a competitive firm will not produce if price equals total cost.

Correct answer: c).

1. If the market price is lowerAVC, then a typical firm in a competitive industry:

a) has excess profits;

b) operates at break-even;

c) reduces output and increases the price of products;

D) closes and possibly leaves the industry.

Correct answer: d).

1. Which 2 of the following descriptions characterize a perfectly competitive market:

a) each seller is completely dependent on the behavior of the other seller

b) firms freely enter and leave the industry;

c) each seller sets his own price that maximizes his profit;

d) sellers cannot influence the price.

Correct answer: b), d).

1. If a firm operating in a perfectly competitive market reduces its supply of products, then:

a) will lead to a decrease in the market price of the product;

b) will not have any impact on the market;

c) will lead to an increase in the market price of products;

d) will reduce supply and increase the market price of products.

Correct answer: b).

1. If the government sets a price on the market that is lower than the equilibrium price, then:

a) the winnings of buyers are usually greater than the losses of sellers;

b) buying the same quantity, buyers will not incur losses;

c) consumer welfare may decline;

d) producers will definitely sell more of the product.

Correct answer: c).

1. The most efficient allocation of resources can ensure:

a) monopoly

c) perfect competition

d) oligopoly

d) imperfect competition

Correct answer: c)

1. List three consequences of rising economic profits in a competitive market:

a) expansion of production in existing firms;

b) the influx of new firms into the industry;

c) increasing the market price of products;

d) increase in prices for used resources.

Correct answer: a), b), d).

1. If firms operating in the market do not make economic profit in the long run, then this is:

a) monopoly

b) perfect competition

c) oligopoly

d) monopsony

Correct answer: b).

1. In the short term, under conditions of perfect competition, it is advisable for an enterprise to expand its output if:

D) a competitive firm cannot expand volume.

Correct answer: b).

1. Which of the following markets best represents perfect competition?

b) hairdressing services;

c) vegetables;

d) cars;

d) gasoline.

Correct answer: c).

1. Marginal Revenue (M.R.) - This:

a) income per unit of good sold;

b) the total amount of proceeds from the sale of a certain amount of goods;

c) an increase in income arising from the sale of one more unit of production

d) the maximum possible income of the enterprise in the current economic situation.

Correct answer: c).

1. Competition will be perfect if:

a) there are many small firms on the market producing the same products

b) there are no close substitutes for the product

c) the market is surrounded by barriers

D) the demand curve for a product has a negative slope.

Correct answer: a).

1. Average income is:

a) income from rising prices for resources in conditions of expansion of production

b) the condition of maximization of any firm in each market

c) total income divided by the number of products sold

d) income equal to accounting profit

Correct answer: c).

16. The break-even point is:

a) total revenue divided by volume of products sold

b) the volume of production at which total costs are equal to total income or average costs are equal to the price of the product

c) the volume of production at which the price of the product is equal to variable costs

Correct answer: b)

1. Freedom of entry and exit from the industry means:

a) there are no legal and economic barriers

b) the creation of new companies is possible only after obtaining permission from the city administration

c) creating a company requires large capital

d) to create a company, it is enough to buy complex technological systems

Correct answer: a)

1. Firms operating in conditions of perfect competition in the long run choose the volume of output at which the minimum long-term average cost is equal to price. Is this true? Lf

Correct answer: (1).

1. Rule MR= MS = P is:

a) a condition for expanding production and rising prices for resources

b) the profit maximization condition for a perfectly competitive firm

c) the condition for obtaining normal accounting profit

d) the condition for maximizing profit for any company

Correct answer: b)

1. The company will close if:

a) price is less than variable costs

b) price is less than fixed costs

c) price equals average cost

d) price is greater than average cost

Correct answer: a)

1. In a perfectly competitive enterprise, accounting profit is:

a) part of the firm's internal costs

b) part of the total profit

c) part of normal profit

Correct answer: b)

1. Demand curve for a competitive firm's product:

a) has a negative slope

b) horizontal line at a given price

c) a vertical line for a given volume

d) has a positive slope

Correct answer: b)

23 Economic profit of a perfectly competitive firm:

a) cannot take place in the long run

b) equivalent to accounting profit

c) exists whenever total costs exceed total revenue

Correct answer: c)

1. Indicate in the correct sequence the changes that occur in a perfectly competitive market in the long run with unprofitable production:

a) there is a shortage of goods on the market

b) prices begin to rise

c) the entry of new firms into the industry.

d) price and average costs equalize

d) individual firms leave the industry.

Correct answer: e), a), b), d), c).

25. Indicate in the correct sequence the changes that occur in a perfectly competitive market in the long run when enterprises in the industry receive economic profit:

a) a decrease in the price of a product or an increase in sales support costs.

b) new competing firms enter the market.

c) decrease in profits.

d) reduction in the influx of competitors.

Correct answer: b), a), c), d).

1. Find the volume of products produced by the enterprise.

Correct answer: the enterprise must continue to operate.

1. The disadvantages of a perfectly competitive market include:

a) low production volume

c) low level of costs for technical improvement

d) price instability.

Correct answer: c)

1. The total costs of a competitive firm with a change in output per unit time change as follows:

Determine the marginal cost of the third unit of production.

Correct answer: 14.

1. Economic profit is less than accounting profit by the amount:

a) external costs

b) fixed costs

c) variable costs

d) internal costs

Correct answer: d).

Topic 8. “Market structures of imperfect competition.”

1. Imperfect competition differs from perfect competition:

a) production volumes

b) level of technical development

c) the size of an individual enterprise

d) the ability to control or not control prices.

Correct answer: d).

1. Monoprolistic competition is:

a) many firms that cannot influence prices

b) several firms, each of which controls a significant market share

c) the only seller of these goods

d) sellers of differentiated products with limited control over price

d) firms colluding to maintain the price of a product

Correct answer: d)

1. The most efficient allocation of resources can potentially ensure:

a) monopoly

b) monopolistic competition

c) oligopoly

d) perfect competition

d) imperfect competition

Correct answer: d)

4. A firm under conditions of monopolistic competition maximizes income when:

a) marginal revenue equals total cost

c) marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost

d) marginal revenue equals marginal cost

e) marginal revenue is greater than total cost

Correct answer: d)

5. The market of perfect and monopolistic competition have a common feature:

a) produce differentiated products

b) there are many buyers and sellers operating in the market

c) standard products are produced

d) the behavior of a firm depends on the behavior of its competitors.

Correct answer: b)

6. Long-term equilibrium in the market of monopolistic competition leads to:

a) prices exceeding average costs

b) prices lagging behind average costs

c) the excess of marginal costs over market prices

d) disappearance of economic profit

Correct answer: d)

1. The market closest to the market of monopolistic competition is:

a) machines

b) energy

d) milk

Correct answer: c).

1. An imperfectly competitive firm maximizes its profits when:

Correct answer: d).

1. Product differentiation is:

a) production of similar products that differ only in quality, design, style, etc.

b) production of identical products with different costs

c) production of identical products with different degrees of profitability

Correct answer: a).

1. Profit maximization rule (MC = MRor a special case MS = MR= P) applies:

a) only in a perfectly competitive market

b) only in monopolistic competition

c) only in a monopoly market

d) only in oligopoly conditions

d) in all markets.

Correct answer: d)

11. In a perfectly competitive market, firms offer:

a) less diverse products than under monopolistic competition;

b) equally varied goods;

c) more variety of products than under monopolistic competition.

d) setting too high prices for consumer goods.

The correct answer is a. (WITH).

12. In an oligopolistic market there are:

a) a large number of medium and large firms;

b) several large firms

c) one company

d) many small firms

The correct answer is b. (P)

13. Common feature of oligopoly and perfect competition

a) there are many small firms on the market

b) firms can influence prices

c) differentiated products are sold

Correct answer: a)

14.Common features of oligopoly and monopolistic competition market:

a) there are no barriers to entry into the industry

b) the behavior of firms is determined by the behavior of competitors

c) there are a small number of sellers

d) firms are able to influence prices

Correct answer: d)

1. Oligopoly is characteristic of markets:

a) clothes

b) agricultural products

c) cars

Correct answer: c).

1. The peculiarity of oligopoly is:

a) the presence of monopoly power in one of the firms

b) lack of product differentiation

c) free entry into the industry

d) the response of firms to each other's behavior

Correct answer: d)

1. Price leadership means focusing on a company that

a) produces the cheapest products

b) uses technical innovations

c) produces original products

d) the largest and most experienced in this production

Correct answer: d)

18. A natural monopoly is:

a) an industry in which a product can be produced by one firm at lower average costs than if it were produced by more than one firm;

b) an industry in which the state regulates prices and volume of production;

c) a company that has driven out all its competitors from the market due to the better quality of its products.

The correct answer is a. (WITH)

19. An example of a natural monopoly is:

a) OPEC - international oil cartel;

b) Savings Bank of the Russian Federation;

c) Publishing house "Izvestia";

d) Moscow metro.

The correct answer is d. (WITH)

20. Price discrimination is:

a) Differences in remuneration by nationality or gender;

b) Selling the same products at different prices to different groups of buyers at the same costs;

c)Increasing the price of a higher quality product.

The correct answer is b. (WITH)

21. A profit-maximizing monopolist will increase output if:

a) Average costs fall;

c) Marginal revenue is higher than marginal cost;

d) Marginal revenue equals variable cost.

The correct answer is s. (WITH)

22. To get maximum profit, the monopolist must choose a volume of output at which:

a) Marginal cost is equal to the price of production;

b) Marginal cost equals total cost;

c) Marginal revenue equals marginal cost;

d) Average cost equals the price of the product.

The correct answer is s. (WITH)

23. Cost-plus pricing is based on:

a) average variable costs plus average profit

b) average fixed costs plus average profit

c) average variable costs plus normal profit

d) average total costs plus average profit

Correct answer: d).

24. Find a correspondence between the type of market structures and the number of firms in the industry:

Correct answer: 1-s; 2-b; 3-c; 4-d. (WITH)

25. There is a single buyer of coal mining equipment on the market. This type of market is characterized as:

a) monopoly;

b) monopsony;

c) oligopoly.

Correct answer: b). (WITH)

1. A monopolist, as opposed to a competitive firm

a) can set any price for his product

b) maximizes profit when marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal

c) can produce and sell any volume of products

D) can choose a combination of price and output.

Correct answer: d)

1. To obtain maximum profit, the monopolist must choose a volume of output at which:

a) marginal cost equals the price of the product

b) marginal cost equals total cost

c) marginal revenue equals marginal cost

d) marginal revenue equals total cost

Correct answer: c)

28. If a firm, under conditions of imperfect competition, produces a volume of output at which marginal revenue is greater than marginal costs, then to increase profits it should:

a) increase the volume of production;

b) reduce the volume of production;

c) leave output unchanged.

The correct answer is a. (WITH)

29.Unlike a competitive firm, a monopoly strives to:

a) produce more products and set the price higher

b) produce less products and increase the price

c) change the price depending on production volume and demand

d) adapt to the price

Correct answer: c).

1. Regulation of natural monopolies pursues all of the following values, except:

a) price restrictions

b) increase in production volume

c) establishing the amount of monopoly excess profit

d) setting prices at the level of average costs

Correct answer: c)

Topic 9. Factors of production market

1. A student has $100 and decides whether to save it or spend it. If he puts the money in the bank, in a year he will receive $112. Inflation is 14% per year. In this case, the real interest rate will be:

d) will be equal to inflation;

e) cannot be determined based on available information

The correct answer is b).

1. Loan interest is:

a) payment for a material resource

b) investment efficiency indicator

c) the price paid to the owner of capital for the temporary use of his funds

d) excess profit

d) interest on deposits

Correct answer: c)

1. A competitive firm seeking to maximize profits should hire additional workers only if:

a) total revenue is less than total costs;

b) the marginal product of labor in monetary terms is less than the wage rate;

c) the value of the marginal product in monetary terms decreases;

d) the value of the marginal product in monetary terms increases;

e) the marginal product in monetary terms exceeds the wage rate.

The correct answer is d).

1. When a competitive firm reaches a level of production at which the monetary value of the marginal product of each resource equals the price of that resource, then it:

a) produces a product at minimal cost, but does not necessarily receive maximum profit;

b) receives maximum profit, but does not necessarily produce products at minimum costs;

c) receives maximum profit at minimum production costs;

d) does not necessarily receive the maximum profit or achieve the minimum level of costs;

The correct answer is c).

5. Capital and labor are interchangeable. If the price of capital rises, then the labor demand curve:

a) moves to the right

b) moves to the left

c) stays in place

d) there is not enough information to answer

Correct answer: a).

6.Rent valuation of land is:

a) land rental price;

b) the total income received from the use of the service of this asset by its owner;

c) the price at which the land plot is sold on the market;

The correct answer is a).

7. When wages increase, the following will happen:

a) reduction in employment if the demand for labor is elastic;

b) a reduction in employment if the demand for labor is completely inelastic;

c) an increase in employment if the demand for labor is elastic;

d) an increase in employment if the demand for labor is inelastic;

e) employment will not change if the demand for labor is elastic

The correct answer is a)

8. In the first year the price level does not change, the nominal interest rate is 6% per year. In the second year, the inflation rate was 3%. If the real interest rate in the second year remains unchanged, then the nominal interest rate in the second year must:

a) grow by 9%;

b) grow by 3%;

c) will decrease by 3%;

d) grow by 6%;

e) remain unchanged at 6%.

The correct answer is b).

1. Which of the following definitions represents a productive economic resource:

a) money capital;

b) means of production;

c) percentage;

d) profit;

d) consumer goods.

The correct answer is b).

1. Ground rent will increase, other things being equal, if:

a) the price of land decreases;

b) demand for land is growing;

c) demand for land is decreasing;

d) the supply of land is increasing;

e) under none of these conditions.

The correct answer is b)

1. Land supply:

a) absolutely inelastic;

b) characterized by unit elasticity;

c) absolutely elastic;

d) elastic;

d) inelastic.

The correct answer is a)

1. The company plans to take out a bank loan for the construction of a new enterprise. The annual interest rate is 18%. The expected rate of return is set at 20%. Under these conditions, the company:

a) will not build a new enterprise;

b) will build a new enterprise;

c) despite the loss, decides to build an enterprise;

d) will not be able to make decisions based on the available information;

d) such a situation cannot occur.

The correct answer is b)

1. A positive decision on the construction of a bridge, which will serve for 200 years and generate a profit of 10%, will be made provided that the interest rate on the loan for construction is:

a) no more than 2%;

b) no more than 20%;

c) 10% or less;

d) 10% or more;

e) there is no information to make a decision.

The correct answer is c)

1. An increase in the interest rate, other things being equal, will lead to:

a) investment growth

b) reduction in the supply of loan capital

c) reduction in investment

d) an increase in demand for borrowed funds

e) will not affect the amount of investment.

Correct answer: c)

1. The real interest rate is:

a) the equilibrium interest rate

b) nominal interest rate

c) nominal rate minus inflation rate

d) nominal rate minus equilibrium rate

e) nominal rate plus inflation percentage

Correct answer: c)

1. Marginal product of a factor of production in monetary terms:

a) represents the price of the last unit of production

b) equal to the increase in revenue when using an additional unit of production factor

c) equal to the change in production volume when using an additional factor of production

d) this is the average price of the product

Correct answer: b)

1. Monopsony in the labor market is:

a) an association of workers that has the right to negotiate with employers

b) the only buyer of labor in this market

c) an organization engaged in advanced training of employees

d) the only manufacturer of any product

Correct answer: b)

1. Marginal labor costs:

a) represent an increase in variable costs with an increase in the volume of output per unit;

b) represent an increase in fixed costs with an increase in the volume of output per unit;

c) all additional production costs

d) represent an increase in total labor costs when hiring an additional worker;

The correct answer is d)

1. The interest rate in the country is 20%. The investor is offered to invest 100,000 rubles. for a period of two years. What minimum annual profit must he be promised in order for him to agree:

Correct answer: b)

20. If the supply of a factor of production is completely inelastic, then on the graph it is:

a) descending line

b) horizontal line

c) vertical line

d) rising line

Correct answer: c)

1. If the government sets the minimum wage higher than the equilibrium wage rate, then in the labor market:

a) there will be a labor shortage

b) there will be a surplus of labor

c) the demand for labor will increase

D) labor supply will decrease.

Correct answer: b)

1. The value of land rent will decrease if the demand curve for land shifts to the right. Is this true?

The correct answer is b)

1. Demand for land:

a) inelastic

b) elastic

c) absolutely inelastic

d) absolutely elastic

Correct answer: b)

1. Establish a correspondence between the economic category and its definition:

Economic Real Nominal

rent interest rate interest rate

1. Interest rate from

adjusted for inflation

2. Price for using land

3. Interest rate expressed

in monetary units according to

current rate

Correct answer: 1B; 2A; 3B

1. Land supply:

a) absolutely inelastic

b) absolutely elastic

c) has unit elasticity

Correct answer: a)

1. The “earth” factor means:

a) agricultural land

b) the entire territory of the earth

c) cultivated land areas

d) all the earth, its subsoil and all natural resources on earth

Correct answer: d).

1. Establishing current discounted value is a procedure that allows:

a) eliminate the influence of inflation on the assessment of future income

b) establish the present value of future income

c) establish the amount of bank interest in a given period

d) choose the best investment project

Correct answer: b).

1. The graph of the marginal return of any resource looks like ... a curve (specify in one word)

Correct answer: downward

1. The theory of "human capital":

a) explains the exploitation of less skilled workers by more skilled ones

b) explains differences in wages to different levels of investment in human capital

c) explains the reasons for the differentiation of employee abilities.

Correct answer: b)

1. Business income is:

a) the company's profit

b) income from property

c) income of the factor “entrepreneurial ability”

d) labor income

Correct answer: c).

07/01/08 at 08:04

Liked? Click on the button below. To you not difficult, and for us Nice).

To download for free COPs at maximum speed, register or log in to the site.

Important! All presented COPRs for free downloading are intended for drawing up a plan or basis for your own scientific works.

Friends! You have a unique opportunity to help students just like you! If our site helped you find the job you need, then you certainly understand how the job you add can make the work of others easier.

If the CPRs, in your opinion, are of poor quality, or you have already seen this work, please let us know.

In Russian legislation regulating the field of consumer protection, the term “significant defect of goods” is used. What are the features of using this phrase? What is the significance of a significant defect in a product from the point of view of consumers exercising their rights? What are the criteria for classifying certain defects as significant, according to the provisions of the law and the position of the courts?

Definition of a significant deficiency

A significant defect of a product is, according to a common definition, a certain flaw, defect or other sign that characterizes the impossibility of using a particular product for its intended purpose without investing in its possible repair of funds commensurate with the market value. This type of phenomenon is also often understood as a property that constantly manifests itself even after the first signs of inoperability have been eliminated (for example, due to imperfections in the technological concept of the product).

In this case, not only a significant defect in the product may occur. Works and services are categories in relation to which signs may also be observed, to some extent similar to those we listed above. Of course, such phenomena are not material, and therefore the nature of the corresponding characteristics will be different, more related to the assessment of the result of the service provider’s work.

The concept of a significant defect in a product is closely related to consumer rights. The fact is that a person who has bought an item characterized by the above characteristics has the right in many cases to refuse the transaction to purchase the product. A similar rule also applies to works and services.

Claims to services: legislative aspect

Protection by consumers of their rights in terms of using services is a very interesting legal category. Let's take a closer look at it. The main source of relevant information for us will be Article 29 of the Law “On the Protection of Consumer Rights”. In particular, it can be noted that this legal act contains provisions defining the duration of the period during which the consumer has the right to submit claims regarding the quality of services to the service provider or contractor, if we are talking about the performance of work.

Thus, in general, the client can make appropriate claims if he discovers defects in the results of work or provision of services during the warranty period. And if it is absent, then for 2 years (if we are talking about defects relating to real estate, then for 5 years).

Significant disadvantages in practice

How can significant product defects be detected? Does it matter what category of things this or that product belongs to - ordinary products or, for example, technically complex ones? At the very beginning of the article, we examined the criteria according to which significant shortcomings of a product are recorded. In particular, if the buyer during operation discovers a defect that cannot be eliminated cheaply, or which manifests itself even after repair.

Thus, the main tool for detecting significant defects in goods is the practice of using them. As for technically complex products, in order to correlate their status with the complex of consumer rights, it makes sense to pay attention to Article 503 of the Civil Code of the Russian Federation. It says that in relation to products that are technically complex and have identified significant deficiencies, a person has the right to demand a replacement, have it repaired free of charge, or return the product to the store for a refund of its cost. It can also be noted that, in accordance with Article 475 of the Civil Code of the Russian Federation, the buyer chooses one of the options at his own discretion.

Disadvantages of the product in the spectrum of other factors in the implementation of consumer rights

There are quite a lot of reasons for returning goods or refusing to pay for services, if you follow the provisions of the legislation of the Russian Federation. For example, a consumer may exercise the right not to fulfill his or her part of a sales or service agreement if:

• the seller did not provide reliable information about the product (work, service);
• the retailer sold low-quality goods (provided low-quality service);
• the seller violated the terms of delivery of goods that were paid in advance.

It can also be noted that the buyer or client has the right to refuse to fulfill their part of the contract with the supplier not only due to violations of their rights, but also due to some subjective reasons (which, in particular, are set out in Articles 25 and 26.1 of the Law “On protection of consumer rights"). At the same time, as lawyers note, the exercise by a buyer or user of services of the right to refuse to fulfill an agreement with a supplier is most often determined by the factors set out in Article 18 of the Law. That is, those that are associated precisely with the shortcomings of the product. The mentioned paragraphs thus allow for significant and ordinary defects of the product. Let's talk about this.

Essential and habitual deficiency in relation to consumer rights

Russian legislation allows the buyer of a product or user of a service to refuse to comply with the terms of the relevant contract with the seller or service provider if the product or service provided (work performed) has shortcomings - as we noted above, significant and ordinary. What is the significance of whether the defects found on a product correspond to one type or another? As a rule, significant shortcomings of a technically complex product are of greatest importance. The fact is that in relation to this type of product, the implementation of the corresponding consumer rights is possible only if the defect is sufficiently serious, that is, it meets the criteria set out at the beginning of the article.

Of course, the buyer has a large number of other reasons for refusing sales transactions. So, for example, if a person discovers that a product does not have a significant, but an ordinary defect, then he can return it to the store within 15 days after purchase. A similar rule applies if the item was repaired for 30 days or more in each year of the warranty period. Thus, Russian legislation includes a fairly wide range of mechanisms for consumers to protect their rights.

Technically complex goods: evolution of legislation

As we defined above, significant shortcomings of a technically complex product are of utmost importance in terms of consumers exercising their rights to exchange or return products with defects. That is, if a technically complex product has significant shortcomings, only this can be the main reason for its return or exchange.

Experts note that the legislation of the Russian Federation regulating the criteria for classifying a particular product as technically complex is evolving noticeably over time. What does this mean?

For example, some experts note that the list of technically complex goods fixed in legal acts, as a rule, increases over time. Moreover, standards are issued in accordance with which various subtypes of technically complex goods are identified. Changes in legal acts are mainly due to the fact that Russian consumers are gradually mastering new types of devices. If, for example, in the Decree of the Government of the Russian Federation of May 13, 1997, technically complex goods included cars, motorcycles and other vehicles, then in a similar type of legal act adopted on November 10, 2011, the list of relevant products has increased significantly.

How to determine the materiality of a deficiency

Let's study the aspect that reflects how significant defects of a product are determined. That is, we need to identify the criteria according to which this or that flaw is qualified as significant. As we have already noted above, the factor of classifying a defect as a specified type is especially important in cases where the product belongs to the category of technically complex ones. In this aspect, we will once again be convinced that the relevant legislation does not stand still (we said above that it is characterized by evolutionary changes).

Russian lawyers identify three historical groups of criteria according to which a significant defect in a product is determined. Let's look at them.

Actually, we cited one of these at the beginning of the article. In accordance with the definition we noted, a significant defect in a product is, first of all, an irremovable defect, or one that requires investments disproportionate to the market value of the product, or manifests itself repeatedly even after repair. However, this wording did not appear in legislation immediately.

One of the first editions of the Law “On the Protection of Consumer Rights” gave a slightly different definition of a significant defect in a product. This phenomenon meant defects that implied the impossibility of using the item for its intended purpose, or those as a result of which the buyer was deprived of the opportunity to use the product as planned when concluding the contract.

Another version of the provisions, according to which the shortage of goods was qualified as significant, appeared in legislation in 1999. The wording, as some experts note, has become narrower. Thus, in the part of the law that explained what constituted a significant defect in a product, it was said that such a defect should be understood as a defect that can only be eliminated due to a large amount of time. In turn, the modern definition of a significant defect in a product, given at the beginning of the article, appeared in 2004.

Among Russian lawyers, there is a widespread point of view according to which a significant defect is legitimately understood as a defect that manifests itself immediately after repairs are carried out in a certain functional area of ​​a product purchased in a store. That is, experts believe, there is no need to keep statistics on the occurrence of breakdowns - if a thing stops working after the first repair, then this is a clear indicator that it has significant shortcomings. However, there are lawyers who do not share this point of view. In their opinion, this phenomenon cannot be considered sufficiently frequent. Such a low statistical significance of such cases allows us to classify them as a separate category of precedents, however, it is not entirely advisable to use such phenomena as one of the key criteria for a significant shortage of goods.

Determination of significant deficiencies: the position of the courts

Some experts believe that the current criteria relevant to the term in question are far from ideal. Therefore, the study of the problems of such a phenomenon as a significant shortage of goods, the definition of the term - these are tasks that can be solved at the level of the Plenums of the Supreme Court of the Russian Federation. So, for example, the Resolution of the Supreme Court of the Russian Federation dated June 12, 2012 contains an explanation regarding the specifics of various types of significant defects in goods. The document reflected criteria regarding fatal defects, those that require large expenses, those that are eliminated after significant time, those that manifest themselves again after repairs, etc.

Thus, in Russian legal practice, the most important role is played not only by the provisions of federal legislation, but also by the position of the judiciary. Many experts believe that the current range of opinions, especially at the level of the RF Armed Forces, predetermines a significant bias in language in favor of the consumer. So, for example, in one of the interpretations of the Supreme Court, a significant deficiency can be understood as a flaw that manifests itself repeatedly.

This provision, lawyers believe, can be interpreted in terms of simultaneous application to several, independent of each other, defects of a product that make its comfortable use impossible. As a result, goods may be returned to stores more often (accordingly, there will be more legal disputes). This may predetermine some imbalance in relation to the principle of proportionality of the plaintiff’s demands on the defendant, compliance with which is the most important condition for the stable functioning of the legal system.

Return or exchange goods: judicial practice

We have determined that the rights of Russian consumers with respect to the purchase of low-quality goods with significant defects are sufficiently protected by law. However, what about law enforcement and judicial practice? The opinions of various experts regarding this area of ​​legal relations are very different. Some lawyers note that the level of legal culture is gradually increasing among Russian retailers and goods manufacturers.

That is, if a buyer brings a product that is clearly inoperative, then, as a rule, the seller, without any questions asked, does everything that the law requires. However, there are retailers who can, for example, resist the buyer’s desire to exchange or return an item, stating that the product was not used correctly - which predetermined the discovery of a significant defect in the product. The result of such disagreements is going to court. What are the specifics of judicial practice in the field of consumer protection when it comes to replacing or returning goods with significant defects?

The main factor influencing the court's decision: a significant defect in the product must be recorded by independent experts. Another important circumstance is that the specialists contacted by the plaintiff and the defendant must determine whether the defect arose due to poor quality assembly of the product or appeared due to incorrect operation of the product. A commodity examination is being carried out. Thus, judicial practice reflects, as many lawyers believe, a fairly neutral approach of judges to the consideration of cases. There is no clear trend in making decisions in favor of plaintiffs or defendants. And this is despite the fact that the legislation, as experts believe, has a noticeable bias in favor of the consumer.

Much, of course, is decided by the examination, designed to reveal exactly how a significant defect in the product occurred. The law on the protection of consumer rights, therefore, despite a noticeable bias in favor of the buyer, requires rather complex and, in some cases, costly procedures to determine the party responsible for the appearance of a defect in the product.

It is necessary to maintain a balance of interests

Many lawyers believe that the legal regulation of relations between buyer and seller (service provider) must, on the one hand, meet such a criterion as the restoration of consumer rights, and on the other hand, also protect the supplier from excessive burdens. Thus, the return of goods in which a significant defect was discovered must be carried out, as we noted above, on the basis of the principle of proportionality, which is significant in any legal system, including the Russian one.

That is, the buyer’s demand must be satisfied, but only if it is proportionate to the recorded offense. Actually, the role of commodity examination, as many experts believe, is largely related to the need to determine the required balance in terms of proportionality of the buyer’s requirements and violations of the law governing consumer rights committed by the seller or service provider.

A defect in a product is a non-compliance of a product (work, service) with either the mandatory requirements provided for by law or in the manner established by it, or the terms of the contract (in their absence or incomplete conditions with the usually presented requirements), or the purposes for which the product (work, service) of this kind usually used, or for the purposes of which the seller (performer) was informed by the consumer when concluding the contract, or by sample and (or) description when selling goods according to the sample and (or) description.

Based on “clause 1 of Article 20” of the Law on the Protection of Consumer Rights, a significant defect in a product (work, service), the occurrence of which entails the legal consequences provided for in “Articles 18” and “29” of the Law, should be understood:

A) fatal defect of goods(works, services) - lack, which cannot be eliminated by taking measures to eliminate it in order to bring a product (work, service) into compliance with the mandatory requirements provided for by law or in the manner established by it, or the terms of the contract (in their absence or incomplete conditions - usually the requirements), leading to the impossibility or inadmissibility of using this product (work, service) services) for the purposes for which a product (work, service) of this kind is usually used, or for the purposes of which the seller (performer) was informed by the consumer when concluding the contract, or with a sample and (or) description when selling goods based on the sample and (or) according to the description;

B) shortage of goods(works, services), which cannot be eliminated without disproportionate costs, - a defect, the costs of eliminating which are close to the cost or exceed the cost of the product (work, service) itself or the benefit that could be received by the consumer from its use.
In relation to a technically complex product, the disproportionate cost of eliminating the defects of the product is determined by the court based on the characteristics of the product, the price of the product or its other properties;

V) shortage of goods(works, services), which cannot be eliminated without a disproportionate amount of time, - a defect, the elimination of which takes time exceeding the period established by agreement of the parties in writing and limited to forty-five days for eliminating the defect of the product, and if such a period is not determined by agreement of the parties - time exceeding the minimum period objectively necessary to eliminate this defect usually the method used;

G) shortage of goods(works, services), repeatedly identified, - various shortcomings of the entire product, identified more than once, each of which individually makes the product (work, service) not comply with the mandatory requirements provided for by law or in the manner established by it, or the terms of the contract (in their absence or incomplete conditions - usually imposed requirements) and leads to the impossibility or inadmissibility of using this product (work, service) for the purposes for which a product (work, service) of this kind is usually used, or for the purposes of which the seller (performer) was informed by the consumer when concluding the contract , or sample and (or) description when selling goods according to the sample and (or) description;

d) a deficiency that reappears after it has been eliminated, - a product defect that reappears after measures have been taken to eliminate it.

In relation to a technically complex product, as a defect in the product under “clause 1 of Article 18” of the Law on the Protection of Consumer Rights, one should understand various defects of the product, the elimination of which together takes time, leading to the impossibility of using the product (work, service) for more than thirty days in during each year of the warranty period.

Product defects mean

Non-compliance with mandatory requirements. As a rule, this is a manufacturing defect (damage, defect, breakdown) resulting from non-compliance of the product (work, service) with GOST/technical regulations, law, or other mandatory requirements. Typically, such shortcomings appear during operation. For example, a cell phone has stopped working or started freezing, or the dye in your shoes or clothing has become unstable. If we talk about the result of the work, then this could be, for example, swelling of the tabletop in manufactured furniture, etc.

Does not match the sample(description). For example, when concluding a contract for the purchase and sale of furniture based on a sample, you are offered a choice of samples of the material from which the furniture will be made. These could be fabric samples, wood colors, etc. The name of the sample you choose is included in the contract. Failure to comply with the sample you have chosen will constitute a sale of a product of inadequate quality (even if the product itself is made without defects).

Non-compliance with the contract. The case is similar to the previous one, only in addition to non-compliance with the sample, the product may not correspond to the article, specification, quantity and many other criteria that are specified in the contract. Speaking about a service (using a tourist service as an example), an example could be a discrepancy between the actual star rating of the hotel and that indicated in the contract.

Inconsistency with goals, about which the seller was informed by the buyer. For example, it is obvious that a rain umbrella, according to its intended purpose, should not allow water to pass through. But there are also special cases when we ourselves ask the seller (performer) to sell a product (perform work) that meets our goals.
The seller is informed of specific goals, as a rule, verbally, in the process of selecting a product. For example, you need to purchase a hacksaw for metal, and the seller offers you one for wood or concrete, saying that it will also work. During use, such a hacksaw, of course, may become unsuitable for use. However, even despite the fact that you violated the operating instructions and used the hacksaw for other purposes, it is considered that you were sold a product of inadequate quality, as not corresponding to the purposes of which you notified the seller. However, difficulties may arise here due to the fact that the goals themselves are not recorded anywhere, that is, there is no evidence that you informed the seller about specific goals.

Mechanical damage. If we talk about the classification of this defect, then it will be its non-compliance with the contract or mandatory requirements. But, since, when talking about mechanical damage, we are treading on thin ice, we need to be more careful and attentive here. When you make a purchase or accept the result of work, you are often given the opportunity to sign an acceptance certificate for the goods (or a certificate of completion of work). In most cases, the product itself is in the packaging, and gullible consumers do not open it. However, without opening the packaging and checking the product, you deprive yourself of the right to demand a refund or replacement of the product if you find mechanical damage on it. Indeed, as a general rule, the risk of accidental loss and damage to the goods passes to the consumer from the moment of payment for the goods and its acceptance (Article 459 of the Civil Code of the Russian Federation). And if the result of the work is accepted, the consumer-customer is obliged to inspect the result and, if there are no shortcomings, indicate them in the act, otherwise he will subsequently be deprived of the right to refer to them (Article 720 of the Civil Code of the Russian Federation). Thus, mechanical damage can occur both as a result of manufacturing defects and as a result of improper transportation/handling prior to the transfer of the goods to the consumer. Therefore, be sure to carefully inspect the goods before signing the acceptance certificate!

Scarcity is a market situation when the quantity of a good produced is less than the quantity that people are willing to buy. Deficiency or excess can be natural phenomena only for a short period of time.

Shortages of goods can arise due to inflation, when the prices of raw materials and other goods necessary for production increase greatly. In this case, the quantity of goods produced is reduced by the manufacturer.

This situation can also arise due to improper planning. The number of units produced is determined by the market that is willing to buy. Bursts of activity can be caused by the time of year, fashion and other factors.

A shortage may arise due to a decrease in imports of goods into the country. Reduced purchasing budgets, violation of trade agreements, unforeseen circumstances, etc. It is impossible to consider the economy of any individual modern country, because it is directly related to the global situation. And if trouble happens in any important country, it affects everyone.

Where does the excess come from and what are its consequences?

Over the past 10 years, Russia has not had a shortage on any significant scale. Excess of goods has no less significant consequences. But, it would seem, what could be bad when there are a lot of goods?

There can be two reasons for the excess of goods in the market and warehouses. The first and most terrible thing was when it grew rapidly, and then there was a decline. As a result, manufacturers do not have time to adjust to the new volume of work, and more goods are produced. Depending on the size of the downturn, there could be job losses, layoffs, and even the closure of entire businesses.

The second option for the emergence of a surplus is the disappearance of the possibility of exporting products in the same volume as before. The reasons may be the same as with deficiency.

The task of economists is to anticipate the occurrence of such situations in the market and influence it. The advantage of a mixed economy over a market economy is precisely that the state can intervene in certain areas. John Keynes also created a theory, the essence of which is that the market cannot regulate itself.

Today, the gradual introduction of the role of the state in economic processes and the export of raw materials, which smooths out rough edges, helps to avoid such problems in Russia.

The Internet of Things (IoT) has reached its apogee. As data volumes increase over the next few years, the market for IoT devices is expected to grow exponentially. This data will be used to monitor and optimize processes, and productivity will increase as you learn how to use the collected data. In addition to internal productivity gains, this data can also lead to improvements in the conduct of transactions between the supplier and the customer.

Many technical improvements still need to happen to enable large-scale implementation of the Industrial Internet of Things. These include reducing the cost of data storage, reducing energy consumption for wireless data transmission and increasing network availability. Another important condition for the development of the industrial Internet of things is the standardization of wireless data transmission.

Wireless data transfer is not new

Wireless data networks have been used in industry for more than 30 years. In the past, these have typically been proprietary solutions in the sub-1 GHz range. They used simple amplitude or frequency modulation (AMn or FSK). Radio paths for these types of modulation were easily assembled from a handful of discrete elements. The disadvantages of this approach include a complete lack of information security and limited bandwidth.

Over the past twenty years, a number of standards for reliable wireless communications have been developed. Of the latter, most provide information protection sufficient for widespread use. In addition, several new free-use frequency bands emerged in the 1980s, including the 2.4 and 5 GHz bands. Today, the implementation of standardized radio communications solutions has become a cost-effective and secure means for monitoring and control devices operating in remote environments or in an industrial plant. The question arises of the optimal choice of wireless communication standard from the many available ones.

So, let's look at the three most common wireless communication standards in the 2.4 GHz range. Bluetooth, Wi-Fi and Zigbee.

WiFi

The Wi-Fi standard or IEEE 802.11a/b/g/n is the most common technical solution for organizing a wireless TCP/IP network for consumer and industrial devices. The name WiFi comes from the abbreviation of the phrase Wireless Fidelity (precise wireless communication) and is a standard for connecting devices in a wireless LAN (WLAN). The committee that coordinates this standard aimed to create the best possible replacement for the wired TCP/IP network. Among others, security and data transfer speed parameters were prioritized. As a result, 802.11n delivers more throughput than any other short-range wireless standard. Disadvantages include high power consumption and the need for large computing resources to effectively service the 802.11 protocol stack. In the gap in the market created by these shortcomings, a number of standards for energy-consuming devices have emerged.

Bluetooth

Bluetooth and Zigbee standards were introduced to fill the market gap that Wi-Fi could not reach. The Bluetooth standard is designed to organize a personal area network (PAN) that surrounds a person or smart device and does not require significant energy consumption. The standard meets the requirements of fast connection, simple human-machine interface and low energy consumption. In a personal area network (PAN), multiple transmitters are allowed to be very close to each other - Bluetooth uses synchronization of all devices to avoid overlapping signals from their transmitters. Bluetooth was also designed to be resilient to interference from Wi-Fi devices, using a frequency hopping algorithm so that Bluetooth device messages can be transmitted even when multiple Wi-Fi channels are active at the same time. Finally, due to its very low transmitter power, Bluetooth communications are less affected by multipath propagation than Wi-Fi communications. Thanks to this, the use of Bluetooth does not require in-depth study and planning of the radio environment at the site of operation. The system is highly resistant to external and mutual interference.

Zigbee

Zigbee is based on the general-purpose low-power radio standard IEEE 802.15.4, which allows various protocols to be configured on top of the radio signal. Zigbee was intended for networks of low-power sensors distributed over a large area. To meet the needs of its market niche, Zigbee uses a mesh network structure and sophisticated energy saving techniques. Thus, the Zigbeeґs protocol provides for quick switching on and off of the device. A number of other protocols are configured on top of 802.15.4, including ISA100, WirelessHART, and 6LoWPAN.

Bluetooth Low Energy

Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) was introduced as an upgrade to regular Bluetooth. Using some of the 802.15.4 techniques, BLE could achieve even lower power consumption than Zigbee and support many of the features that originally emerged from Zigbee's development.

Choosing the optimal standard

So, how to choose the optimal standard for your task? It depends on the system requirements. In general, WiFi has the best throughput and the most developed protocol stack, but Bluetooth, BLE and Zigbee are ideal choices for certain tasks. For example, Zigbee is best suited for monitoring multiple self-powered sensors that are distributed over a large area. Bluetooth/BLE is well suited for replacing point-to-point cable connections or monitoring sensors in a small area. BLE builds on the vast base of tablets and smartphones already in use, giving it undeniable advantages for the human-machine interface.

Although technical standards may change, there is still no reason to doubt that wireless communications will become more widespread in the near future. With the advent of the Industrial Internet of Things, millions of devices will be connected to the worldwide network, many of them wirelessly.

Advantages and disadvantages of each standard:

1) Wi-Fi

A. Advantages
i.Highest throughput up to 600Mbps with 802.11n protocol version
ii.Fixed (25 MHz) or wider channel bandwidth
iii.Supports channels in the 2.4 and 5 GHz frequency bands.
iv.Increased protection

b.Disadvantages
i.Reduced range as data rates increase or move to the 5 GHz band.
ii.Poorly suited for battery powered sensors.


2) Bluetooth/BLE

a.Advantages

ii.Mass adoption
iii.Excellent performance under conditions of intense third-party and mutual interference.
iv.Easy to use, no need for private or territorial
planning.

b. Flaws
i.Maximum throughput 2 Mbps.
ii.No automatic roaming mode

3) Zigbee

A. Advantages
i.Very low energy consumption
ii.Fixed channels between WiFi channels in the 2.4 GHz band.
iii.Supports sub-1 GHz bands.

b.Disadvantages
i.Complex mesh network
ii.Maximum throughput 259 kbps.

Based on materials